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  • #1 by racepro on 25 Feb 2014
  • Hi,
    can someone please help me with a formula or trigger to distribute loss
    when potential loss reaches x amount on either player.
    example:

    suppose maximum loss on either player is 30.00

    example
    Nadal     £3.40
    Murray   -30.00

    trigger fires to distribute loss evenly

    Nadal    -£11.00
    Murray  -  11.00

    Stop trading

    Thanks
    R
  • #2 by mcbee on 27 Feb 2014
  • hi
    can you give an example of the bets placed and the prices etc.


    mcbee
  • #3 by mcbee on 28 Feb 2014
  • hi
    here is a trigger to try.
    copy and paste the trigger in to your set of triggers and add the constant
    the trigger will correct any differences when the loss reaches your set amount using the first and second favourite.
    this trigger is set for the first 2 ranked favourites, the trigger will not work if you use any other favourites

    please use test mode until you are happy with your settings

    mcbee

    download the trigger below
  • #4 by racepro on 28 Feb 2014
  • Thanks mcbee I will test it and get back to you
    R
  • #5 by racepro on 01 Mar 2014
  • Hi Mcbee,
    I have tested the stop loss trigger and it doesn't spread the loss evenly in fact places all the loss on the favourite. I have amended it as follows:
    (((-profit_loss)/2)*1.065)/(back_price-1)
    I haven't tested it yet as nothing qualifies. I've added '/2' does that seem ok ?
    I'm guessing the '1.065' is commission related.

    Secondly how can I stop my back trigger firing after this stop loss trigger has fired ?
    I need to end betting on the event.
    Thanks for your help once again.
    R
  • #6 by racepro on 01 Mar 2014
  • Hi mcbee,
    I'm curious to know why there are two "AND" blocks in the DL trigger you posted?
    Also I would like to distribute loss equally and close trading on the event.
    Perhaps it needs both a back and lay trigger.
    Thanks/cheers
    R
  • #7 by racepro on 02 Mar 2014
  • Hi,
    I expect I'd need both a Back and Lay bet to distribute equal loss between selections.
    Sorry mcbee but the single back bet you suggested only passes losses to the other player.
    Lets say I have the following
    Nadal  -30.00
    Murray    4.20

    After loss trigger fires it may look like this
    Nadal  -16.20
    Murray -16.20

    What would be the formula required to distribute losses equally?
    Any help much appreciated
    Cheers
    R
  • #8 by mcbee on 02 Mar 2014
  • hi
    the 2 blocks were from testing different methods.
    when testing what was the profit/loss figures before and after.
    how many selections were in the market.


    mcbee
  • #9 by mcbee on 02 Mar 2014
  • hi
    i re-tested the trigger
    before the set limit was reached and after screenshots.
    are you sure that your set of triggers did'nt place another bet after the correction.
    this trigger will only place a bet if the set limit is reached.
  • #10 by racepro on 02 Mar 2014
  • Hi mcbee,
    Thanks again for the replies.
    I don't remember the amounts after the event I tested.
    I will do another test today and post the result via a screenshot.
    cheers
    R
  • #11 by racepro on 02 Mar 2014
  • Hi mcbee,

    Here is an event I tested
    Bets as follows
    Pakistan      India
    Bet     odds       bet          odds
    5.00     1.61     10.21   1.96
    12.38 1.97   12.81   1.97
    13.21  1.97   17.86   1.65
    25.02  1.65

    The result after those bets:

    Pak    3.00
    Ind  -21.77

    Then a stop loss back bet was placed
            bet     odds
    Ind  15.46  2.50
    Resulting in the followng:
    Pak   -12.46
    Ind       1.42

    The setting was to lose 15.00+   so the loss shown
    on India @ 21.77 was okay.

    I would be happy to just put half of the bet amount on India.
    15.46/2 = 7.73
    this would result in the following:

    7.73 * 2.50 = profit  11.59
    Pak    - 4.73  (    3.00 - 7.73)
    Ind    -10.18  (-21.77+11.59)
    This loss is biased towards the Fav Pakistan (at time of loss trigger firing)
    which may not be a bad idea.

    So I am proposing to amend your formula as follows:
    original    ((-profit_loss)*1.065)/(back_price-1)
    amended  ((-profit_loss)*1.065)/(back_price-1)/2

    Hope you can follow this mess :)
    I've only tested the one event and I bow to your superior knowledge
    and please let me know if I am on the wrong track.
    Many thanks
    R
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