Hi Oxa,
I'm trying to say that if Selection 1 was a lay price of 1.25 and Selection 2 lay price = 1.75 that this would be on the limit of the combined acceptable lay odds. They sum to 3.00.
Similarly, if Selection 1 was 1.45 and Selection 2 was 1.50, then both would qualify as their combined 'liability' (sorry might be a terminology thing) is 0.95, which < 1.00 so ok.
Does this make more sense? In reply to your question:
So I guess you are trying to say that both selections' prices should be below 2.0?
Not quite, 2.0 is the maximum any one selection could be, but then the other one would have to be at lay odds of 1.0 for the pair to qualify.